A 45-year-old international business man is taken emergently to the operating room because of an acute abdomen and demonstration of free air under the diaphragm on chest x-ray. Surgical exploration reveals a perforated proximal body gastric ulcer. This patient has had no history of peptic ulcer disease and has been, essentially, free of health-related problems. Which of the following should be the operative plan of choice?
Truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty
Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
Highly selective vagotomy
Omental buttress repair (Graham patch)
KeywordsGastric Ulcer Hiatus Hernia Gastroesophageal Junction Esophageal Perforation Pyloric Stenosis
These keywords were added by machine and not by the authors. This process is experimental and the keywords may be updated as the learning algorithm improves.
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